I only ask because, having read this piece by Jim Pickard on the FT Westminster blog, and tried to understand the responses to it, I am still completely at a loss to comprehend how Brown has contrived to lose yet another £5 billion of taxpayers' money.
Is it another "selling-off-the-gold-at-a-loss" moment or is it just how the arcane rules of re-financing a failed bank work? Either way, Gordon appears to have cocked it up yet again.
Or have the merchant bankers (see photo) conned us again?
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